Inductive Quotient Analytics Interview Questions, Process, and Tips

The work done by A in 8 days is = 8/ 12 = 2/3

Means A alone completes 2/3 part of work.

Remaining work which is (1–2/3) = 1/3 is completed by B in 8–2 = 6 days

So the complete work done by B in 6/(1/3) = 18 days.

B alone can complete the work in 18 days.

7 months

length of train = 150 m

To solve this problem, we can break it down into steps:

Step 1: Determine the individual rates of work for A, B, and C.

If A needs 8 days to finish the task, then their work rate is 1/8 of the task per day.
If B needs 12 days to finish the task, then their work rate is 1/12 of the task per day.
If C needs 16 days to finish the task, then their work rate is 1/16 of the task per day.

Step 2: Calculate the combined work rate of A and B.

If A works for 2 days, their contribution will be 2 * (1/8) = 1/4 of the task completed.
If B works until 25% of the job is left for C, then they will complete 75% of the task.

Step 3: Calculate the time it takes for B to complete 75% of the task.

Since B’s work rate is 1/12 of the task per day, it will take B (75%)/(1/12) = 9 days to complete 75% of the task.

Step 4: Calculate the remaining work for C.

If B completes 75% of the task, then the remaining work for C is 100% – 75% = 25% of the task.

Step 5: Calculate the time it takes for C to complete the remaining work.

Since C’s work rate is 1/16 of the task per day, it will take C (25%)/(1/16) = 4 days to complete the remaining 25% of the task.

Step 6: Calculate the total time required.

A worked for 2 days, B worked for 9 days, and C worked for 4 days, totaling 2 + 9 + 4 = 15 days.

Therefore, it will take a total of 15 days for A to work for 2 days, B to work until 25% of the job is left, and C to complete the remaining work.

the ratio of present age of x:y is 5:6
And,we have to find the present age of x.
so,the present age of X is definitely will be multiple of 5.
X=35
so,35 is the answer.

First we need to find out LCM of 2,3,5
that is 30,,,
then add 30 to 6 we get 36…
then divide it by 2 we get 18..
so 18 would be written interms of binay as 10010
means..Answer is
$**$*

Bus started at 8:00
it travelled with 18mph…
distance of destination is 27 miles…
we know velocity=(distance)/time
i.e., time=27/18hours=3/2hours=90 min…
i.e., the bus reached destination at 9:30
the bus stayed for 30 min…
so the bus started return journey at 10:00
now the bus returned with velocity 18 + (18/2)=27mph
the taken to the bus to travel = 27/27=1 hour = 60 min…
so bus would be returned on 11:00…

35 hours

3;4

Please let me know answer.

x and y can be equal to 1..
If so,then he gets 1/1 of Rs.10 which is equal to 10 and
again 1/1 of Rs.10=Rs.10..so,he gets total of 20..and
returns 20..so,no gain and no loss..
If x=1,y=2,he gets, 5+20=25..and returns 20..so he may not
lose..
So,whatever be the values of x and y,only these two answers
are possible..
so its a)He never loses..