Santander Bank Interview Questions, Process, and Tips

Calculation:
⇒ If 1000 divided by 112, the remainder is 104. ⇒ 112 – 104 = 8 ⇒ If 8 is added to 1000 it will become the smallest four-digit number and a multiple of 112. ⇒ 1000 + 8 = 1008 ∴ The required result will be 1008.

gujarat

North-east

Complete step-by-step answer:
Investment made by A for 1 year, IA=2000
Investment made by B for 2 year,
IB=2×3000IB=6000

Investment made by C for 2 year,
IC=2×4000IC=8000
The ratio of their investment is given by
IA:IB:IC=2000:6000:8000
To simplify the ratio divide it by 1000,
IA:IB:IC=2:6:8
Now again to simplify divide the ratio by 2,
IA:IB:IC=1:3:4
The total parts of this investment =1+3+4=8
A’s share in the investment is 1 out of the 8 parts; B’s share is 3 out of 8 while C’s share is 4.
Therefore, the profit share of A’s investment of Rs. 2000=18×3200=400.

cannot be determined .

Let the number of males be given the name M.
Let the number of females be given the name F.
If 15 females are absent, then M will be twice that of
present females.
This means that M = 2 * (F – 15)
M = 2 * F – 30.
or 2 * F – M = 30.
Now if in addition to the 15 females being absent, we also
have 45 males being absent,
then this gives the equation,
(F – 15) = 5 * (M – 45)
which simplifies to
F – 15 = 5 * M – 225
5 * M – F = 210
Pulling the equations together, we get
5 * M – F = 210
-M + 2 * F = 30
Multiply the first equation by 2, and keep the second
equation as is.
10 * M – 2 * F = 420
– M + 2 * F = 30
Add the equations.
9 * M = 450
M = 50
Verify answer.
Calculate F
from – M + 2 * F = 30
-50 + 2 * F = 30
2 * F = 30 + 50
F = 40.
If 15 females are absent, then number of males will be twice
that of females.
40 – 15 = 25.
50 = 2 * 25. Confirmed.
If also 45 males were absent, then female strength would be
5 times that of males.
Female strength is 25 due to the 15 females being absent.
50 – 45 = 5.
25 = 5 * 5. Confirmed.

4 1 1 4
5 1 1 4
+ 0 1 1 4
———-
9 3 4 2

Barber

(x+2)^2 -x^2 = 84
X=20
So (20,22)
Sum= 42

D=5, G=1